Capital Markets & Investment MCQs for UPSC Prelims
70 practice questions on Capital Markets & Investment from the Economy section of the UPSC Prelims syllabus.
70 come with a written explanation and 23 are actual previous year questions.
Try the sample set below - the answer stays hidden until you ask for it.
9 Easy46 Medium15 Hard23 from past papers
Sample questions
Q1
Previous year questionmedium
With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristic?
AIt is the investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company.
BIt is a largely non-debt creating capital flow.
CIt is the investment which involves debt-servicing.
DIt is the investment made by foreign institutional investors in the Government securities.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B - It is a largely non-debt creating capital flow.
A defining feature of Foreign Direct Investment is that it is largely a non-debt-creating capital flow, since it reflects equity ownership and lasting management interest rather than a loan. It is not confined to listed companies, it does not involve debt-servicing obligations like external borrowings, and investment by foreign institutional investors in government securities is portfolio (FPI) flow, not FDI. Hence the major characteristic is that it is non-debt creating.
Q2
Previous year questionmedium
Consider the following statements :
Statement I : As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II : Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III : For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A - Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
All three statements are factually true: bondholders are lenders while stockholders are owners, and bondholders get priority in repayment. Both of these facts (statements II and III) directly explain why bondholders face relatively lower risk than stockholders, which is statement I. So both II and III are correct and both explain statement I.
Q3
Previous year questionmedium
Consider the following:
1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
2. Motor vehicles
3. Currency swap
Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1, 2 and 3
D1 and 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D - 1 and 3 only
An Exchange-Traded Fund represents tradable units backed by financial assets, so it is a financial instrument, and a currency swap is a derivative contract, which is also a financial instrument, so items 1 and 3 qualify. Motor vehicles are physical or real assets, not financial instruments, so item 2 does not qualify. Since only 1 and 3 are financial instruments, option (d) is correct. The choice including motor vehicles confuses tangible assets with financial claims.
Q4
Previous year questionmedium
With reference to 'IFC Masala Bonds', sometimes seen in the news, which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.
2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sector.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C - Both 1 and 2
The International Finance Corporation is a member of the World Bank Group, so statement 1 is correct. Masala bonds are rupee-denominated bonds issued to offshore investors and serve as a source of debt financing for both public and private sector projects in India, so statement 2 is correct as well. Hence 'Both 1 and 2' is the answer; the official UPSC key and the bulk of coaching keys (ClearIAS, Edukemy, SuperKalam) agree, though a minority argued statement 2 was too broad, leaving a minor dispute.
Q5
Previous year questionmedium
With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:
1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A1 and 2 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A - 1 and 2 only
NFTs can digitally represent ownership of physical or digital assets such as art and collectibles, so statement 1 is correct. Each NFT is a unique cryptographic token recorded on a blockchain, making statement 2 correct. By definition NFTs are non-fungible, meaning they are not interchangeable at equivalency like currency, so they cannot serve as a general medium of exchange, making statement 3 wrong. Hence only 1 and 2 are correct.
Q6
Previous year questionmedium
Consider the following statements :
I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
AI and II only
BII and III only
CI and III only
DI, II and III
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A - I and II only
India does account for a very large share of global equity options volumes and its equity market capitalisation briefly overtook Hong Kong's, so statements I and II are correct. Statement III is wrong because SEBI is the statutory regulator that warns small investors about options-trading risks and acts against unregistered financial advisors. Hence only I and II are correct.
Q7
Previous year questionhard
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A1 and 2 only
B3 only
C1, 2 and 3
D2 and 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D - 2 and 3 only
Foreign Institutional Investors are permitted to hold Government Securities within prescribed limits, so statement 2 is correct, and stock exchanges in India do run dedicated debt trading platforms, so statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is wrong because the Liquidity Adjustment Facility is available only to banks and primary dealers, not to Non-Banking Financial Companies. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct, making option (d) the answer.
Q8
Previous year questionmedium
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A1 and 2 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B - 2 and 3 only
Credit rating agencies in India are regulated by SEBI under its CRA Regulations, not by the RBI, so statement 1 is wrong. ICRA Limited is indeed a public limited company listed on Indian stock exchanges, so statement 2 is correct. Brickwork Ratings is a SEBI-registered Indian credit rating agency, making statement 3 correct. Hence only 2 and 3 are correct.
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