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Explore popular questions from Terms, Conventions, Policies & reports for UPSC. This collection covers Terms, Conventions, Policies & reports previous year UPSC questions hand picked by experienced teachers.

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Q 1. The Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) Protocol adopted by COP-10 at Nagoya is regarding the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of:

The genetic resources of the earth.

B

Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs)

C

Marine and coastal areas significant for 'eco-tourism’.

D

Technology transfer mechanisms for Clean Energy Development.

Explanation

The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization to the Convention on Biological Diversity is an international agreement which aims at sharing the benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources in a fair and equitable way. It entered into force on 12 October 2014. 90 days after the date of deposit of the fiftieth instrument of ratification.

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Q 2. The ‘Montreaux Record’ is a register of:

A

Invasive Alien Species and their ecological hazards outside their native environment.

Wetland sites under the threat of anthropogenic activities.

C

Endangered species of tropical and sub-tropical fauna.

D

Coastal cities under direct threat of consequences of global warming.

Explanation

The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.

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Q 3. What is carbon credit?

It is the difference between the carbon emission allowed and actually emitted carbon

B

It is the Ioan amount by 1ME for reducing pollution

C

It is the loan given to poor people for buying Modern Stoves

D

All of the above

Explanation

Carbon credit shows that country or any entity emit the carbon below the limit prescribed by the government, hence country or entity can sell it in Exchange where carbon are treated.

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Q 4. Which among the following multilateral convention seeks to protect the human health and environment from Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)?

A

Bonn Convention

Stockholm Convention

C

Rotterdam Convention

D

Basel Convention

Explanation

The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods, become widely distributed geographically, accumulate in the fatty tissue of humans and wildlife, and have harmful impacts on human health or on the environment. In response to this global problem, the Stockholm Convention, which was adopted in 2001 and entered into force in 2004. requires its parties to take measures to eliminate or reduce the release of POPs into the environment. As set out in Article 1, the objective of the Stockholm Convention is to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants.

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Q 5. Which of the following state governments has launched Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Jan Van Vikas Scheme for the development of villages around tiger reserves?

A

Gujarat

Maharashtra

C

Madhya Pradesh

D

Rajasthan

Explanation

Maharashtra Cabinet has approved Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Jan Van Vikas Scheme for development of villages around tiger reserves. Aim of this scheme is comprehensive development of villages in and around the buffer zones of tiger reserves.

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Q 6. In context of environment, the term “dirty dozen” refers to

A

12 most harmful greenhouse gases

B

12 ozone depleting substances

12 persistent organic pollutants

D

none of the above

Explanation

12 persistent organic pollutants. These were the 12 initial compounds that were listed under the Stockholm convention.

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Q 7. The United Nations Frame work Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty drawn at:

A

United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972

UN Conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janerio. 1992

C

World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002

D

UN Climate change conference,Copenhagen, 2009

Explanation

In 1992, countries joined an international treaty, the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, as a framework for international cooperation to combat climate change by limiting average global temperature increases and the resulting climate change, and coping with impacts that were, by then, inevitable

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Q 8. Which among the following multilateral environment agreements (MEAs) is not correctly paired with the respective issue it deals with?

A

Montreal Protocol of 1987 - Ozone Depleting Substances

B

Bonn Convention of 1979 - The conservation of Migratory Species

Basel Convention of 1989 - Regulation of transboundary movement.transit, handling and use of Living Modified Organisms.

D

Rotterdam Convention of 1998 - Consensual International Trade in certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides.

Explanation

The Basel Convention on the Control of Trans- boundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal, usually known simply as the Basel Convention, is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations, and specifically to prevent transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries (LDCs). It docs not. however, address the movement of radioactive waste.

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Q 9. ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ’Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to:

A

constitutional reforms

B

Ganga Action Plan

C

Linking of rivers

Protection of Western Ghats

Explanation

They are associated with Western Ghat conservation plan.

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Q 10. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is mandatory under which one of the following India legislations:

A

Indian Forest Act

B

Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

C

Wildlife Protection Act

Environment (Protection) Act

Explanation

Under Environment (Protection) Act 1986, EIA is now mandatory for 29 categories of developmental activities which involve investment of more than Rs 50 Crores.

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Q 11. United Nation's Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) defines ‘desertification’ as:

A

Spread and expansion of deserts

B

Deserts encroaching arable lands rendering them useless

Land degradation in dry lands resulting from various factors

D

None of the above

Explanation

UNCCD is one of the Rio conventions that focusses on desertification, land degradation and drought (DLDD). Dry lands include arid, semiarid and dry sub humid regions. It dews not connote spread of deserts.

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Q 12. The ‘Hyderabad pledge' of COP-11 is regarding:

A

Commitment to reduce subsidies

Financial Commitment to Wetland conservation

C

Commitment to reduce emissions

D

Financial commitment to achieve Aichi targets

Explanation

US$50 million during India’s two - year COP presidency, focused on enhancing India's human and technical resources to attain the CBD’s objectives, and for promoting capacity building in developing countries. It established the foundation for the mobilization of resources to achieve the Aichi targets.

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Q 13. Which of the following addresses traditional knowledge associated with genetic resources considering the rights of the indigenous and local communities?

A

Hyderabad Pledge of COP - 11

B

Nagoya - Kuala Lumpur Supplementary Protocol

Nagoya Protocol

D

All of the above

Explanation

It addresses traditional knowledge associated with genetic resources with provisions on access, benefit - sharing and compliance. It also addresses genetic grant access to them.

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Q 14. ‘Gadgil Committee Report' and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to

A

constitutional reforms

B

Ganga Action Plan

C

linking of rivers

protection of Western Ghats

Explanation

(i) The Gadgil Commission was an environmental research commission appointed by the Ministry of Environment and Forests of India. The Commission submitted the report to the Government of India on 31 August 2011. The Kasturirangan Committee Report has sought to balance the two concerns of development and environment protection, by watering down the environmental regulation regime proposed by the Western Ghats Ecology Experts Panel’s Gadgil report in 2012. (ii) They're associated with Western Ghat conservation plan.

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Q 15. The National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) run by Central Pollution Control Board, monitors which of the following pollutants at all locations?
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Sulphur dioxide
3. Oxides of nitrogen
4. Suspended particulate matter
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:

A

1,2 and 3 only

B

1 ,3 and 4 only

2 ,3 and 4 only

D

1 ,2, and 4 only

Explanation

2 ,3 and 4 only. The objectives of the N.A.M.P. are to determine status and trends of ambient air quality; to ascertain whether the prescribed ambient air quality standards are violated. Under N.A.M.P., four air pollutants viz .. Sulphur Dioxide (SO2). Oxides of Nitrogen as NO2. Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM) and Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM / PM 10) have been identified for regular monitoring at all the locations.

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Q 16. Which of these pairs are correctly matched ?
1. Minamata convention: mercury
2. Stockholm convention: persistant organic pollutants
3. Basel convention: lead
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

1 and 2 only

B

1 and 3 only

C

2 and 3 only

D

1,2 and 3

Explanation

1 and 2 only. The Basel Convention is for the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal. It was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations, and specifically to prevent transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries (LDCs). It does not, however, address the movement of radioactive waste. The Minamata Convention on Mercury is an international treaty designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is an international environmental treaty that aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs).

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Q 17. Consider the following statements:
1. No human activity is allowed inside tiger reserves
2. Tourism is allowed in national parks
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1 only

2 only

C

Both 1 and 2

D

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

2 only. The second statement is a simple fact, which you must know. A tiger reserve has two zones -core and buffer. In the buffer zone, human activity is allowed.

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Q 18. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides for various categories of protected areas. These include:
1. National parks
2. Wildlife sanctuaries
3. Biosphere reserve
4. Tiger reserves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Codes:

A

1 and 2 only

B

1 and 3 only

C

2 and 3 only

1,2 and 4 only

Explanation

Biosphere reserves are created by merely a notification and they DO NOT require legislation. National parks, wildlife sanctuaries, tiger reserves, community reserves, conservation reserves are backed up by the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

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Q 19. Which of the following are correct
1. Alpha diversity (within-community diversity) refers to the rate of replacement of species along a gradient of habitats or communities.
2. Gamma diversity (overall) refers to the diversity of the habitats over the total landscape or geographical area.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A

Only 1

B

Only 2

Both 1& 2

D

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The terms alpha, beta, and gamma diversity were all introduced by R. H. Whittaker to describe the spatial component of biodiversity. Alpha diversity is just the diversity of each site (local species pool). Beta diversity represents the differences in species composition among sites. Gamma diversity is the diversity of the entire landscape (regional species pool).

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Q 20. Over 140 countries have agreed on the first international treaty that aims to reduce the emission and release of mercury into the air, water and land. Treaty is named as the Minamata convention
Which of the following is correct with regard to this treaty:
1. The convention prohibits primary mining of mercury.
2. The use of mercury in products like CFL , batteries, soaps, cosmetics and medical appliances must be phased out by 2020.
3. Treaty keeps exception for the products like vaccines’ preservatives and products related to religious faith
Codes:

A

1 only

1,2&3

C

3 only

D

1 & 2 only

Explanation

The Minamata convention provides controls and reductions across a range of products, processes and industries where mercury is used, released or emitted. Major highlights of the Minamata Convention on Mercury include a ban on new mercury mines, the phase-out of existing ones, control measures on air emissions, and the international regulation of the informal sector for artisanal and small-scale gold mining. Use of mercury in coal-fired power plants, small and artisanal gold mines and cement production has to be reduced. Countries with small and artisanal gold mines will have to devise strategies to reduce the use of mercury in gold production in three years. The use of mercury in products like batteries, CFLs, soaps, cosmetics and medical appliances like thermometer will be phased out by 2020.

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Q 21. Forest Rights Act recognizes the rights of forest dwellers over forestland and forest resources such as minor forest produce they have traditionally been extracting and using.
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to this Act.
1. Forest dwellers can transport minor forest produce by any appropriate means of transport.
2. A committee set up by Gram Sabha issues transit passes for transporting minor forest produce
Codes:

A

1 only

B

2 only

Both 1& 2

D

Neither 1 & 2

Explanation

The Union ministry of tribal affairs has notified the amended rules for the implementation of the Forest Rights Act (FRA) of 2006. Accordingly, Forest dwellers can transport minor forest produce by any appropriate means of transport. Transit passes for transporting minor forest produce will be issued by a committee constituted by the gram sabha. The committee constituted under the gram sabha will prepare conservation and management plan for community forest resources after forest dwellers’ rights on such resources are recognized.

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Q 22. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Dark Matter:
1. Dark matter does not interact with any electromagnetic radiation.
2. Dark matter interacts with ordinary matter through gravity only.
3. The force between dark matter and ordinary matter is repulsive.

A

1 only.

1 & 2 only.

C

2&3only.

D

1,2&3.

Explanation

The name refers to the fact that it does not emit or interact with electromagnetic radiation, such as light, and is thus invisible to the entire electromagnetic spectrum. The most widely accepted hypothesis on the form for dark matter is that it is composed of weakly interacting massive particles (WIMPs) that interact only through gravity and the weak force. Dark matter was first detected as a result of strong unexplained attractive effects on orbits of stars. It has since been used to account for gravitational concentrations of ordinary matter that resulted in stars and galaxies. This is again an attractive and not a repulsive effect.

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Q 23. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the constitution of India?
1. Right to Healthy Environment, construed as a part of Right to Life under Article 21.
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243 (A)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:

Only 1

B

Only 2 & 3

C

Only 1 & 3

D

1,2&3

Explanation

The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 embraces the objective that the right to healthy environment has been construed as a part of the right to life under Article 21 of the constitution in the judicial pronouncement in India.

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Q 24. Consider the following pairs of Conventions and their Objectives:
1. Minamata Convention: Against toxic mercury and mercury compounds.
2. Cartagena Protocol: Safe transfer, handling and use of living modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology.
3. Water Convention: To protect and manage the transboundary surface waters and groundwaters.
4. Espoo Convention: To prevent, reduce and control significant adverse transboundary environmental impact from proposed activities.
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A

2 and 3 only

B

1,2 and 3 only

C

2 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

1. Minamata Convention: to protect the human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds. 2. Cartagena Protocol: To ensure an adequate level of protection in the field of the safe transfer, handling and use of living modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology that may have adverse effects on the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity, taking also into account risks to human health, and specifically focusing on transboundary movements. 3. Water Convention: To protect and ecologically sound manage the transboundary surface waters and groundwaters. To prevent, control and reduce water pollution from point and non-point sources. 4. Espoo Convention: To prevent, reduce and control significant adverse transboundary environmental impact from proposed activities. Also called EIA convention.

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Q 25. Consider the following questions.
1. The Government of India was the first country in South Asia to join IUCN as a stage member in 1969.
2. It is also the first and the only country in the region to host the General Assembly of IUCN in 1969.

A

Only I

B

Only II

C

Neither I nor II

Both I and 11

Explanation

The establishment of the IUCN India National Committee (INC) - a first of its kind committee in the region - consisting of IUCN’s Indian members and Chaired by the Secretary. Ministry of Environment. Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), Government of India (Gol) marked the beginning of the close association between IUCN and Gol to coordinate on environmental issues. India became a State Member of IUCN in 1969, through the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).