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Explore popular questions from National Affairs for UPSC. This collection covers National Affairs previous year UPSC questions hand picked by experienced teachers.

Q 1.

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Recently Union Cabinet approves Promulgation of an Ordinance for Amendment to the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005. Consider the following statements:
1. Before amendment provision of the SEZs Act, 2005 do not permit ‘trusts’ to set up units in SEZs .
2. The amendment will enable a trust to be considered for grant of permission to set up a unit in SEZs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1 only

B

2 only

Both 1 and 2

D

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The present provision of the SEZs Act, 2005 do not permit ‘trusts’ to set up units in SEZs. The amendment will enable a trust to be considered for grant of permission to set up a unit in SEZs. The amendment will also provide flexibility to the Central Government to include in this definition of a person, any entity that the Central Government may notify from time to time. This will facilitate investments in Special Economic Zones.

Q 2.

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Consider the following statements regarding National Youth Parliament initiative.
1. National Youth Parliament Festival 2019 is organized on the theme of “Be the Voice of New lndia" and “Find solutions and contribute to policy".
2. The National Youth Parliament Festival also encourages the youth to engage with public issues, understand the common man’s point of view, form their opinion and express these in an articulate manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1 only

B

2 only

Both 1 and 2

D

Neither 1 nor 2

Q 3.

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Global Digital Health Partnership (GDHP) is an international collaboration of governments, government agencies and multinational organisations dedicated to improving the health and well-being of their citizens through the best use of evidence-based digital technologies. With reference to '4th Global Digital Health Partnership Summit', consider the following statement:
1. The 4th Global Digital Health Partnership Summit being held at Pune.
2. The global intergovernmental meeting on digital health is being hosted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in collaboration with World Health Organization (WHO) and the Global Digital Health Partnership (GDHP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1 only

2 only

C

Both 1 and 2

D

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare J P Nadda along with Union IT Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad inaugurated the 4th Global Digital Health Partnership Summit in New Delhi.
The Global Digital Health Partnership is an international collaboration of governments, government agencies and multinational organisations dedicated to improving the health and well-being of their citizens through the best use of evidence-based digital technologies. The summit will provide an opportunity to support governments and health system reformers to improve the health and well-being of their citizens through digital technologies.

Q 4.

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Recently the Union Cabinet has approved the proposal for setting up of a Centre for Disability Sports at

A

Dumka in Jharkhand

Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh

C

Raipur in Chhattisgarh

D

Rajkot in Gujarat

Explanation

The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi has approved the proposal for setting up of a Centre for Disability Sports at Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh, to be registered under the Societies Registration Act, I860. It will function under the name of Centre for Disability Sports, Gwalior. Setting up of the Centre shall entail an estimated cost of Rs 170.99 crore, spread over a period of 5 years. Improved sports infrastructure created by this Centre will ensure effective participation of persons with disabilities in sports activities and also enable them to compete at national and international levels. Setting up of the Centre will develop a sense of belonging in Divyangjan to facilitate their integration in society.

Q 5.

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Consider the following statements regarding Fourth Agri Leadership Summit.
1. The Fourth Agri Leadership Summit, organised by the government of Punjab in Moga, Sonipat.
2. It was a 3-day summit. The theme of the summit was “Entrepreneurship & Agri-Business; Agri Allied - A Promising Sector and Agri Service- Direct Marketing”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1 only

2 only

C

Both 1 and 2

D

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Fourth Agri Leadership Summit organised by the government of Haryana, in Ganaur, Sonipat on February 17, 2019.

Q 6.

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With reference to the Atomic Energy based Power, consider the following statements:
1. The share of atomic energy in the overall electricity generation in the country was about 2.93% in the year 2017-18.
2. New nuclear power capacity is planned to be added in order to increase the share of generation of electricity through atomic energy.
3. The Government has accorded administrative approval and financial sanction for setting up 12 more reactors with a capacity of 9000 MW.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1 only

B

2 and 3 only

C

1 and 3 only

All of the above

Q 7.

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Consider the following statements with respect to the new Draft National River Ganga Bill, 2018.
1. National River Ganga Bill 2018 has proposed the setting up of an armed ‘Ganga Protection Corps’, with the powers to arrest offenders who pollute it.
2. The Centre will take control of management, regulation and development of the Ganga, and gives it the status of a national river.
3. The draft Act contemplates certain provisions conferring powers to the National Ganga Council to arrange to carry out impact assessment of certain projects and activities which affect the flow of water in river Ganga.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1 and 2 only

B

2 and 3 only

C

1 and 3 only

All of the above

Q 8.

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What is the maximum estimated cost of the recently announced linking project of Godavari and Cauvery?

A

Rs. 50, 000 cr.

B

Rs. 55, 000 cr.

Rs. 60, 000 cr.

D

Rs. 65, 000 cr.

Q 9.

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The category of Overseas citizens of india was entered in the citizenship Act of India through an amendement in the year: ” |CDS2016-

A

1986

B

1992

C

1996

2003

Explanation

In year 2003. by an amendment in constitution the category of‘Overseas Citizen of India’ was entered in the Citizenship Act of India.

Q 10.

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The Right to Education was added to the fundamental Rights in the Constitution of india through the

Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002

B

Constitution (93, h Amendment) Act, 2005

C

Constitution (87th Amendment) Act, 2003

D

Constitution (9711’ Amendment) Act, 2011

Explanation

In 2002, through the 86th amendement act, the Right to Education was added to the Fundamental Rights.

Q 11.

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Which one of the following changes has not been made to the Citizenship Act of India by the Amendment in 2015?

A

The Overseas Citizens of India will now be called the Overseas Citizens of India Cardholders

The Non-Resident Indians are entitled to vote in elections in India

C

The Persons of Indian Origin have been placed at par with the Overseas Citizens of India

D

The Persons of Indian Origin are now entitled to lifelong visa to visit India

Explanation

Citizenship Act of India (amendment 2015) in titles the NRI to vote in elections in lndia.

Q 12.

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What docs the 93rd Constitutional Amendment deal with?

A

Inclusion of Bodo. Dogri, Maithili and Santhali languages in the Eighth Schedule

B

Inclusion of service tax levied by Union and collected and appropriated by the Union and the states in the Seventh Schedule

Free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years

D

No reservation in Panchayats need to be made in favour of Scheduled Castes in Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation

Parliament passed the 93rd Constitution Amendment Bill relating to the educational rights of children. By virtue of 86th Constitutional amendment act (12th December 2002) Article 21A was amended by the Constitution in order to introduce Right to Education as a fundamental right. The Act provides for free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of six to fourteen years. It came into force on 1st April 2010.

Q 13.

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The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution provided
constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions. Which of the following are the main features of this provision?
1. A three-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all states.
2. Panchayat election in every 5 years.
3. Not less than 33% of seats are reserved for women.
4. Constitution of district planning committies to prepare development plans.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

1, 2 and 3

B

1, 3 and 4

C

1, 2 and 4

D

2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The salient features of the 73rd Amendment Act. 1992 are: -
• To provide 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all States having population of over 20 lakhs.
• To hold Panchayat elections regularly every 5 years.
• To provide reservation of scats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women (not less than 33%)

• ToappointStatcFinanceCommission to make recommendations as regards the financial powers of the Panchayats.

Q 14.

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According to the Constitution (Fifty Second Amendment Act, 1985 as amended in 2003, a legislator attracts disqualification under the I Oth Schedule if
1. he voluntarily gives up the membership of the party on whose ticket he was elected.
2. he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party.
3. as a result of split, less than one third of the members formed a new group or party in the house.
4. a member who has been elected as a independent member joins any political party.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A

2 and 3

B

1, 2 and 4

C

1 and 3

All of these

Explanation

The Tenth Schedule ( Anti-Defection Act) was included in the Constitution in 1985 by the Rajiv Gandhi ministry and sets the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party.

Q 15.

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The Constitution (74th) Amendment Act makes mention of the

A

composition of the National Development Council

B

structure of the Planning Commission of india

functions of the State Finance Commission

D

functions of the Kaveri Water Authority

Explanation

Article 243(1) of the Indian Constitution prescribes that the Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (73rd Amendment Act, 1992), and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats.

Q 16.

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Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India need the ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states to effect amendment?
1. The manner of election of the President of lndia.
2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
3. Powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
4. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

1, 2, 3 and 4

B

1, 2 and 3

C

3 and 4

D

1 and 2

Explanation

Bills that have to be passed by Special Majority and also to be ratified by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures . This comprises of Constitutional Amendment Bills which seek to make any change in articles relating to:
• The Election of the President.
• The extent of the Executive Power of the Union and the States.
• The Supreme Court and the High Courts.

• Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule.

• The representation of States in Parliament.

• The provisions of Article 368 itself.

Q 17.

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Which of the following statements is/are not true for the category of the Overseas Citizens of India (OC'I) inserted by the amendment to the Citizenship Act of India in 2003?
1. it gives dual citizenship to Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) who are citizens of another country.
2. It gives Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) who are citizens of another country, an OCI card without citizenship.
3. It permits the OCI to vote in general elections in India.
4. It allows the OCT to travel to India without visa. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A

1 and 2

B

1 and 3

3 only

D

2 and 4

Explanation

It does not permit the OCI to vote in general election in India. On the occasion of first Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas on 9th January 2003, former Prime Minister Atal

Q 18.

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Consider the following statements:
1. The Amendment procedure has been provided in Artical 36X of the Constitution of lndia.
2. The consent of the States is mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only

B

2 only

C

Both 1 and 2

D

Neither 1 nor 2

Q 19.

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The word ‘Secular’ was inserted into the Constitution of India by:

A

44th Amendment Act

B

52nd Amendment Act

42nd Amendment Act

D

34th Amendment Act

Explanation

Secularism in India means equal treatment of all religions by the state. With the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India enacted in 1976, the Preamble to the Constitution asserted that India is a secular nation. However, neither India’s constitution nor its laws define the relationship between religion and state.

Q 20.

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Which of the following are the basic features of the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act?
1. Provides for a three-tier structure of panchayats in the village, intermediary and district levels.
2. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and women in all the tiers of panchayats.
3. Election to panchayats under the supervision of the State Election Commissions.
4. Introduction of the 11 th Schedule to the Constitution. Sclcct the correct answer using the codc givcn below:

A

1, 2 and 3 only

B

3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

D

2 and 4 only

Explanation

All of these are correct.

Q 21.

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Which principle among the ‘following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

A

Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

Participation of workers in the management of industries

C

Right to work, education and public assistance

D

Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Explanation

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
1 To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
2 To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
3 To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
4 To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wiki life (Article 48 A).

Q 22.

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Fundamental Duties of Indian Constitution, added by 42nd Amendment, are—

A

Non-cnforccablc

B

Non-justiciable

C

Enforceable and justiciable both

Both (a) and (b)

Explanation

The Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizens(Part IV-A) were added as Article 51-A by the 42nd Amendment. 1976 on the recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee. These duties set in part IV-A of the Constitution, concern individuals and the nation. The duty as such is not legally enforceable in the Courts; but if the State makes a law to prohibit any act or conduct in violation of any of the duties, the courts would uphold that as a reasonable restriction on the relevant fundamental right. Though non-justiciable in nature, it still helps the court in examining the constitutional validity of the law. If the court finds that a law in question seeks to give effect to a fundamental duty, it may consider such law to be reasonable in relation to Article I4(equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such law from unconstitutionality.

Q 23.

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Consider the following statements—
1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years of age group by the state was made a fundamental right by the 16th amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the concurrent list by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

A

1, 2 and 3

B

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

D

1 and 3 only

Explanation

It was 86th constitutional amendment.

Q 24.

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Right to property which was a fundamental right under Article 31. was made a legal Right by.... Constitutional Amendment.

A

31st

B

42nd

44th

D

52nd

Explanation

The 44th amendment of the Constitution eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right.

Q 25.

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The authoritative text of the India Constitution in Hindi was authorized to be published which of the following constitutional amendments?

A

57th Amendment, 1987

58th Amendment, 1987

C

59th Amendment, 1988

D

60th Amendment, 1988

Explanation

The 58th Constitution amendment act, 1987 calls lor translation of Constitution in the Hindi Language.