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UPSC

Explore popular questions from National Affairs for UPSC. This collection covers National Affairs previous year UPSC questions hand picked by experienced teachers.

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Q 1. Recently Union Cabinet approves Promulgation of an Ordinance for Amendment to the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005. Consider the following statements:
1. Before amendment provision of the SEZs Act, 2005 do not permit ‘trusts’ to set up units in SEZs .
2. The amendment will enable a trust to be considered for grant of permission to set up a unit in SEZs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1 only

B

2 only

Both 1 and 2

D

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The present provision of the SEZs Act, 2005 do not permit ‘trusts’ to set up units in SEZs. The amendment will enable a trust to be considered for grant of permission to set up a unit in SEZs. The amendment will also provide flexibility to the Central Government to include in this definition of a person, any entity that the Central Government may notify from time to time. This will facilitate investments in Special Economic Zones.

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Q 2. Consider the following statements regarding National Youth Parliament initiative.
1. National Youth Parliament Festival 2019 is organized on the theme of “Be the Voice of New lndia" and “Find solutions and contribute to policy".
2. The National Youth Parliament Festival also encourages the youth to engage with public issues, understand the common man’s point of view, form their opinion and express these in an articulate manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1 only

B

2 only

Both 1 and 2

D

Neither 1 nor 2

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Q 3. Global Digital Health Partnership (GDHP) is an international collaboration of governments, government agencies and multinational organizations dedicated to improving the health and well-being of their citizens through the best use of evidence-based digital technologies. With reference to '4th Global Digital Health Partnership Summit', consider the following statement:
1. The 4th Global Digital Health Partnership Summit being held at Pune.
2. The global intergovernmental meeting on digital health is being hosted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in collaboration with World Health Organization (WHO) and the Global Digital Health Partnership (GDHP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1 only

2 only

C

Both 1 and 2

D

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare J P Nadda along with Union IT Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad inaugurated the 4th Global Digital Health Partnership Summit in New Delhi.
The Global Digital Health Partnership is an international collaboration of governments, government agencies and multinational organizations dedicated to improving the health and well-being of their citizens through the best use of evidence-based digital technologies. The summit will provide an opportunity to support governments and health system reformers to improve the health and well-being of their citizens through digital technologies.

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Q 4. Consider the following statements regarding Fourth Agri Leadership Summit.
1. The Fourth Agri Leadership Summit, organised by the government of Punjab in Moga, Sonipat.
2. It was a 3-day summit. The theme of the summit was “Entrepreneurship & Agri-Business; Agri Allied - A Promising Sector and Agri Service- Direct Marketing”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1 only

2 only

C

Both 1 and 2

D

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Fourth Agri Leadership Summit organised by the government of Haryana, in Ganaur, Sonipat on February 17, 2019.

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Q 5. Consider the following sentences regarding ‘National Action Plan for Children (NPAC) 2016'.
1. It was launched on the occasion of National Girl Child Day.
2. The NPAC has been developed by the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
3. Protection and participation is one of the key priority areas of the Plan.
Which of the above sentence(s) is/are true?

A

1 and 2

B

1 and 3

C

2 and 3

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

National Action Plan for Children, 2016 (NPAC) was launched at a special function held to celebrate the National Girl Child Day. The NPAC has been developed by the Ministry of Women & Child Development. The Action Plan has four key priority areas; survival, health and nutrition; education and development; protection and participation.

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Q 6. Regarding ‘National Health Policy 2017' which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Health Ministry has formulated the National Health Policy 2017, to address the current and emerging challenges necessitated by the changing socio-economic and epidemiological landscapes after a gap of 15 years, since the last National Health Policy was framed in 2002.
2. It seeks to reach everyone in a comprehensive integrated way to move towards wellness
3. The Policy proposes raising public health expenditure to 4.5% of the GDP in a time bound manner.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—

1 and 2

B

2 and 3 only

C

1 and 3 only

D

All of the above

Explanation

The Policy proposes raising public health expenditure to 2.5% of the GDP in a time bound manner. It envisages providing larger package of assured comprehensive primary health care through the ‘Health and Wellness Centers' and denotes important change from very selective to comprehensive primary health care package which includes geriatric health care, palliative care and rehabilitative care services.

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Q 7. The policy of liberalization, privatization and globalization was announced as New Economic Policy by Prime Minister

A

Rajeev Gandhi

B

Vishwanath Pratap Singh

Narsimha Rao

D

Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Explanation

India’s New Economic Policy of 1991 was a neoliberal Structural Adjustment Program that allowed India to qualify for aid from the World Bank and IMF. In 1990. India faced an economic crisis and was “on the brink of default” on its debts. In July 1991, “India’s neo-That cheritc trio - the prime minister [P.V. Narasimha Rao] and the ministers of finance [Manmohan Singh] and commerce |P. Chidambaram]” announced “the formulation of the most radical program of economic liberalization in independent India’s history." The Government devalued the rupee by 23 per cent, raised interest rates, and revised the 1991/92 Union Budget. Former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh is considered to be the father of New Economic Policy of India.

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Q 8. Consider the following statements about National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) of India for 2017-2031:
1. This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan.
2. The NWAP is unique as this is the first time lndia has recognized the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife.
3. The NWAP has ten components.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

B

1 and 2 only

C

2 and 3 only

D

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has unveiled third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017-2031 to chalk out future road map for wildlife conservation. The key focus areas of this plan includes integration of climate change into wildlife planning, conservation of coastal and marine ecosystem, mitigation of human-wildlife conflict, focus on wildlife health among others. The NWAP has five components. 17 themes, 103 conservation actions and 250 projects. The five components are - strengthening and promoting the integrated management of wildlife and their habitats; adaptation to climate change and promoting integrated sustainable management of aquatic biodiversity in India; promoting eco-tourism, nature education and participatory management; strengthening wildlife research and monitoring of development of human resources in wildlife conservation and enabling policies and resources for conservation of wildlife in India.

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Q 9. The Government policy Make in India aims at

A

removal of bureaucratic sloth

B

elimination of red tapism

C

reduction in cost of manufacturing

None of the above/More than one of the above

Explanation

The main aim of 'Make in India' programme is for promoting India as an important investment destination and a global hub for manufacturing, design and innovation. It also covers promoting entrepreneurship, creating a conducive environment for investment, modern and efficient infrastructure.

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Q 10. Which one of the following is the objective of MGNREGA?

A

To build assets

B

To encourage micro irrigation

C

Water management

To enhance rural income

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi NREGA aims at strengthening the rural livelihood resource base through creation of productive and durable assets for sustainable growth.

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Q 11. Which one of the following statements about the Companies Act, 2013 is not correct?

The Act regulates the corporate sector to make it accountable

B

It provides for Corporate Social Responsibility

C

It provides more opportunities for new entrepreneurs.

D

It enables wide application of Information Technology.

Explanation

The company Act 2013, regulates the corporate sector to make it accountable and responsible socially.

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Q 12. The Instrument of Instructions contained in the Goverment of India Act, 1935 has been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as

A

Fundamental Rights

Directive Principles of State Policy

C

Extent of Executive Power of State

D

Conduct of business of the Government of lndia

Explanation

The Directive Principles resemble the instrument of instructions enumerated in the “government of India Act of 1935".

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Q 13. Which one among the following Acts for the first time allowed Indians, at least theoretically, entry to higher posts in British Indian administration?

A

Charter Act, 1813

Charter Act, 1833

C

Charles Wood's Education Despatch, 1854

D

Indian Councils Act, 1861

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Q 14. The following seven (7) items consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.
{tex}\mathrm{Statement \ I}{/tex} : The defects of the Regulating Act and the exigencies of British politics necessitated the passing of the Pitt’s India Act.
{tex}\mathrm{Statement \ II}{/tex} : The Pitt’s India Act gave the British Government supreme control over the Company’s affairs and its administration in India.

A

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Q 15. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:
1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held Benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1 only

2 only

C

1 and 3 only

D

2 and 3 only

Explanation

Act provides is an appellate tribunal, and they’re required to finish case within one year. So 3 is wrong, by elimination, we are left with A and B. So, B is most appropriate because IT dept .Therefore Government can seize the benami properties.

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Q 16. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for

A

the participation of workers in the management of industries

B

arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes

C

an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute

a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes

Explanation

The Trade disputes Act of April 1929 imposed a system of tribunals and tried to ban strikes ‘undertaken for objects other than furtherance of a trade dispute or if designed to coerce Government and/or inflict hardships on the community.' Hence “D” is the answer.

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Q 17. Consider the following statements:
1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British lndia.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A

1 only

2 only

C

Both 1 and 2

D

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Lord Ripon introduced the Factory Act of 1881 to improve the service condition of the factory workers in India. The Act banned the appointment of children below the age of seven in factories. It reduced the working hours for children. It made compulsory for all dangerous machines in the factories to be properly fenced to ensure security to the workers. So statement #1 is wrong.
• In Bombay, middle class philanthropic efforts to improve labour conditions began fairly early with N.M. Lokhende starting weekly Dinabandhu in 1880....and even starting a Bombay Millhands Association in 1890. So, statement #2 is right. Hence “B” is the answer.

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Q 18. When was the Criminal Tribes Act enacted for the first time?

A

1952

B

1924

1871

D

1911

Explanation

The Criminal Tribes Act (CTA) refers to various pieces of legislation enforced in India during British rule. It was first enacted in 1871 mostly in North lndia.

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Q 19. Which of the following Act made a provision for setting up a Public Service Commission in India?

A

Act of 1909 C.E.

Act of 1935 C.E.

C

Act of 1942 C.E.

D

Act of 1947 C.E.

Explanation

The first Public service commission was set up on October 1st, 1926. However, its limited advisory functions failed to satisfy the people’s aspirations and the continued stress on this aspect by the leaders of our freedom movement resulted in the setting up of the Federal Public Sendee Commission under the Government of India Act, 1935. Under this Act. for the first time, provision was also made for the formation of Public Service Commission at the provincial level. On 26th January 1950. the Federal Public Service Commission was accorded a constitutional status as an autonomous entity and given the title- Union Public Service Commission.

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Q 20. With reference to ‘Section 123(3) of the Representation of the People Act', recently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Constitution of India which empowers Parliament of India to make laws regarding the disqualification of MP and MLA- also mentions that on disqualification of an MP or an MLA, the seat becomes vacant immediately.
2. Section 123(3) of the Act defines as ‘corrupt practice’ appeals made by a candidate or his agents to vote or refrain from voting for any person on the ground of ‘his’ religion, race, caste, community or language.
Select the correct option from the codes given below:

2 Only

B

1 Only

C

1 and 3

D

All of the above

Explanation

Section 123(3) of the Act declares a corrupt electoral practice to be: “The appeal by a candidate or his agent or by any other person with the consent of a candidate or his election agent to vote or refrain from voting for any person on the ground of his religion, race, caste, community or language or the use of, or appeal to religious symbols or the use of. or appeal to. national symbols, such as the national flag or the national emblem, for the furtherance of the prospects of the election of that candidate or for prejudicially affecting the election of any candidate.”
The primary legislative aim of Section 123(3) of the Representation of People Act is to “curb communal and separatist tendencies in the country.”

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Q 21. As per Wildlife Protection Act 1972; there is provision for absolute protection and offence in which of the following schedule?
1. Schedule 1
2. Schedule 2
3. Schedule 3
4. Schedule 4
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—

A

1 and 3

B

2 and 4

C

1, 2 and 4

1 and 2

Explanation

As per WPA, 1972 only schedule 1 and 2 contain list of species with absolute protection and offence.

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Q 22. Under Section ............. of the Santhal Paragana Act, 1949, a land which is not recorded as such shall be recognized or treated as mulraiyat ka jote (private holding) or mulraiyat jote. (official holding).

9

B

8

C

7

D

10

Explanation

Under Section 9 of the Santhal Paragana Tenancy Act, 1949, a land which is not recorded as such shall be recognized or treated as mulraiyat kajote (private holding) or mulraiyat jote (official holding).

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Q 23. Section 71 of the Chota Nagpur Tenancy Act, 1908 which provides power to restore possession to members of the Scheduled Tribe over land unlawfully transferred, has been inserted by ................. law.

A

Civil Procedure Code (Act VII of 1859)

Bihar Scheduled Areas Regulation, 1969

C

Both

D

None of the above

Explanation

Section 71 of the Chota Nagpur Tenancy Act, 1908 which provides power to restore possession to members of the Scheduled Tribe over land unlawfully transferred, has been inserted by Bihar Scheduled Areas Regulation, 1969.

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Q 24. In terms of the current provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 there cannot be bank notes in denominations higher than—

A

₹8,000

₹10,000

C

₹7,500

D

₹2,000

Explanation

The Section 24 of Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 states that the maximum denomination of a note can be ₹ 10,000.

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Q 25. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act (MSMED) was passed in the year—

A

2005 A.D.

2006 A.D.

C

2007 A.D.

D

2008 A.D.

Explanation

The micro, small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act was notified in 2006 to address the policy issues affecting MSMEs as well as the coverage and investment ceilling of the sector. The Act seeks to facilitate the development of these enterprises and enhance their competitiveness.