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UPSC

Explore popular questions from Indian Polity and Governance for UPSC. This collection covers Indian Polity and Governance previous year UPSC questions hand picked by experienced teachers.

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Q 1. The majority of the provisions of the Indian Constitution can be amended:

A

by the State Legislature alone

the Parliament alone

C

with the joint approval of the Parliament and State Legislatures

D

only on ratification of half the States

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Q 2. Which among the following constitutional amendment provided for state re-organisation on linguistic basis?

A

Third Amendment

B

Fourth Amendment

Sixth Amendment

D

Seventh Amendment

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Q 3. One of the following amendments imposed restrictions on the fundamental rights of the citizens with a view to protect the sovereignty and integrity of India. It was the:

Sixteenth Amendment

B

Twentieth Amendment

C

Fifteenth Amendment

D

Forty-second Amendment

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Q 4. Constitutional safeguards to civil servants are ensured by:

A

Article 310

B

Article 315

C

Article 312

Article 311

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Q 5. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments have added Article 15 (5) in the Constitution of India providing for reservation in educational institutions in the private sector also ?

A

81st Amendment

B

86th Amendment

C

91st Amendment

93rd Amendment

Explanation

The reservation in educational institutions in the private sector was provided in the 93rd Amendment under the article 15 (5) of the constitution of India.

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Q 6. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?

A

6th and 22nd

B

13th and 38th

7th and 31st

D

11th and 42nd

Explanation

7th Amendment Act 1956 provides for composition of the House of the People and re-adjustment after every census. 31st amendment act 1973 provides for raising the upper limit for the representation of states in the Lok Sabha from 500 to 525 and reducing the upper limit for the representation of UTs from 25 to 20.

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Q 7. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively?

91st

B

93rd

C

95th

D

97th

Explanation

The above provision has been added by 91st constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.

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Q 8. Which of the following is true about the Constitution (Twenty Furth Amendment) Act, 1971

A

Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution including fundamental rights

B

The President is bound to assent Constitution amendment bill

C

Education was transferred to the Concurrent List\

All the above

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Q 9. Which of the following amendment was passed during the period of emergency?

A

45th amendment

B

50th amendment

42nd amendment

D

47th amendment

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Q 10. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the elections law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996:
1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag or the Constitution of Indian shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six year from the date of conviction
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliament Constituency
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate

Which of the above statements are correct?

2 and 3

B

1,2 and 4

C

1 and 3

D

1,2, 3 and 4

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Q 11. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
(1) Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21.
(2) Provision of Grants for raising the level of administration in the scheduled Areas for the w-elfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275 (1)
(3) Powers & functions of gram sabha as mentioned under Article 243 (A)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1 only

B

2 & 3 only

C

1 & 3 only

D

1,2&3

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Q 12. Which of the following articles are correctly matched:
1. Election Commission - Article 338.
2. Finance Commission - Article 280.
3. National Commission for SCs - Article. 324.
4. CAG - Article 148.
5. Attorney General of India - Article 76.

A

All except 1 & 5.

All except 1 & 3.

C

All except 2 & 5.

D

None of the above options are correct.

Explanation

Article 338-Special Officer for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes etc
Article 280-finance commission
Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission.
Article 148: Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Article 76 of the constitution mentions that he/she is the highest law officer of India. As a chief legal advisor to the government of India, he advises the union government on all legal matters. He also is the primary lawyer representing Union Government in the Supreme Court of India.

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Q 13. In case of national emergency, the State Government

A

cannot legislate

B

can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List

C

can legislate on the subjects in the State List

Legislative power is suspended

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Q 14. Impact of financial emergency excludes

A

Union getting the power to issue directions to State to observe canons of financial propriety

B

President's power to direct a reduction in the salaries of Supreme Court and High Court judges

C

President's right to direct States to reserve even money bills for his consideration

President's power to suspend fundamental rights in Article 19

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Q 15. Resignation letter of a State Public Service Commission member is addressed to the

A

President

Governor of the state

C

Chief Justice of India

D

Chief Minister of the state

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Q 16. The Constitution protects the interests of the Anglo-Indian community by

A

Reserving seats for them in the defence forces

B

Reserving seats for them in the services and legislatures

C

Reserving seats for them in the Indian Army

authorizing the President to nominate two members of the community to the Lok Sabha

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Q 17. After the Constitutional Amendment to the Anti-Defection Act in 2003,

A

a merger is no longer valid even if 2/3 of the members of a political party join another party

a split of a legislature party is invalid even if 1/3 of the party leaves

C

a defector has to resign and cannot stand for re-election till the term of the legislature ends

D

all the above have been legislated

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Q 18. For recognition as a state party, a political party

must secure at least 6% of valid votes in the general elections in the state plus two seats in the State Assembly

B

must win at least six seats in the State Assembly

C

must secure at least 2% of the valid votes polled in the state’s elections to the Lok Sabha

D

get at least 11 MPs in the Lok Sabha

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Q 19. Which statement correctly describes the 4th Schedule of the Constitution of India?

A

It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states

B

It contains the languages listed in the Constitution

C

It contains the provisions relating to administration of tribal areas

It allocates seats in the Council of States

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Q 20. Single-member constituency system means

A

a constituency having only one candidate

B

there can be only one voter in the constituency

a constituency which elects only one representative though there can be many candidates.

D

a constituency having only one political party to contest election

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Q 21. A Joint Public Service Commission can be created by:

A

An order of the President

B

A resolution of the Rajya Sabha

An act of Parliament

D

A resolution of the concerned state legislatures

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Q 22. The members of UPSC hold office:

for a term of six years or till they attain the age of 65 years

B

for a term of five years irrespective of the upper age limit

C

for a term of six years or till they attain the age of 62 years

D

during the pleasure of the President

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Q 23. The UPSC submits an annual report of its work to

the President

B

the Cabinet Secretariat

C

the Home Minister

D

Parliament

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Q 24. The independence of the Election Commission has

A

by making the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner difficult

B

by not permitting any change in the salary and other service conditions of the Election Commissioner during his term

both the above provisions

D

by none of the above provisions

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Q 25. The power to decide an election petition is vested in the

A

Parliament

B

Supreme Court

High Court

D

Election Commissioner

Explanation

Parliament has enacted Section 80-A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 providing that the “High Court” shall be the authority for presentment of election petitions under Article 329(b) of the Constitution.