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UPSC

Explore popular questions from Constitution for UPSC. This collection covers Constitution previous year UPSC questions hand picked by experienced teachers.

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Constitution

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Q 1. Which one among the following commission was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India?

A

University Grants Commission

B

National Human Rights Commission

Election Commission

D

Central Vigilance Commission

Explanation

Superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission under Article 324.

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Q 2. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunchal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitution of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but a single cititzenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1, 2 and 3

B

1 and 3

C

3 only

1 only

Explanation

Article 371 A to I deals with special provisions to -Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa. The Constitution of India envisages a single policy for both Union and the States. A naturalized citizen is one who acquires citizenship either by Naturalization or by Registration. They can be deprived of citizenship if they acquired citizenship by using fraudulent means.

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Q 3. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?
1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

A

Neither 1 nor 2

Both 1 and 2

C

Only 1

D

Only 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per provisions under Article 59. Statement 2 is correct as according to Article 79, Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.

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Q 4. Consider the following statements:
An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the:
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislature
4. President
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A

Only 1

B

1, 2 and 3

C

2, 3 and 4

1 and 2

Explanation

An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by either House of Parliament under article 368. It does not require the President's recommendation.

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Q 5. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

A

Fundamental Rights

B

Fundamental Duties

Directive Principles of State Policy

D

Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

Explanation

Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to the central and State government of India to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies. DPSPs aim to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life. They also aim to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state. They act as a check on the government. It is a yardstick in the hands of the people to measure the performance of the government. It shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.

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Q 6. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A

1 and 2 only

B

2 only

C

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

National Development council is not a constitutional body. It is an extra-constitutional body. Planning Commission is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body. It was created by the Govt. of India in 1950 by a resolution. Zonal councils have been recognized in the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.

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Q 7. Which one of the following is a part of the electoral college for the President but, not the forum for his impeachment?

A

Lok Sabha

B

Rajya Sabha

C

State Legislative Councils

State Legislative Assemblies

Explanation

According to article 54, electoral college of President includes elected members of LS, RS and State legislative assemblies. Under article 61, members of state legislative assemblies do not take part in the

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Q 8. Which one of the following statements about the duties of Prime Minister is correct?

A

Is free to choose his minister only from among members of either House of the Parliament

B

Can choose his cabinet after consulting the President of India.

Has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet

D

Has only limited power in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary powers vested the President of India

Explanation

PM has complete discretion to choose his ministers in the Cabinet not necessarily from the two Houses of Parliament but can also choose any other person. That person should become member of either house within 6 months from the date he enters the office.

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Q 9. Which one of the following was not proposed by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?

A

Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all level

B

The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions

The Panchayati Raj functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children

D

The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or dissolved by the State government

Explanation

Statement given under option (c) is not mentioned in 73rd amendment act. But this norm is applied in Haryana, Rajasthan, MP, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

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Q 10. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament:

he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion

B

he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House

C

he can make statements only in the Upper House

D

he was to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in

Explanation

Because no-confidence motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha (not in RS) by the opposition.

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Q 11. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require any Constitutional amendment:
Reason (R) : Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?

A

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation

Assertion is wrong as reservation for women in Parliament and state legislature would require a constitutional amendment.

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Q 12. In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousands in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression "population" here means the population as ascertained by the:

A

1991 Census

1981 Census

C

1971 Census

D

1961 Census

Explanation

The expression at present population in 1997 here means the previous census, i.e., 1981.

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Q 13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List-I (Functionaries)List-II (Oaths or affirmations)
A. President of India1. Secrecy of information
B. Judges of Supreme Court2. Faithful Discharge of duties
C. Members of Parliament3. Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India
D. Minister for the Union4. Upholding the Constitution and the law

Codes:

A

A-3, B-4- C-1 D-2

B

A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

D

A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Explanation

Oath or affirmation by the President under article 60; Oath or affirmation by Judge of SC, Members of Parliament, Ministers for the Union comes under Third Schedule of the Constitution.

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Q 14. In the following quotation, "WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity: and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation. In our Constituent Assembly this 'X' do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.", 'X' stands for:

A

twenty-sixth day of January, 1950

twenty-sixth day of November, 1949

C

twenty-sixth day of January, 1949

D

None of the above

Explanation

The Constitution of India was enacted on Nov. 26, 1949 but it was commenced on Jan. 26, 1950.

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Q 15. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection Act?

A

Second Schedule

B

Fifth Schedule

C

Eighth Schedule

Tenth Schedule

Explanation

Tenth schedule was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985. It provides for anti-defection law.

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Q 16. The Constitution of India recognises:

A

only religious minorities

B

only linguistic minorities

religious and linguistic minorities

D

religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities

Explanation

The Constitution of India recognizes religious and linguistic minorities under article 29 and 30 (Cultural and Educational rights). However it does not define the term Minority.

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Q 17. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?

A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament

B

The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not

C

The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days

D

The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration

Explanation

A Money bill can be introduced only in LS (not in RS) that too on the recommendation of the President.

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Q 18. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as:

A

decorum

B

crossing the floor

C

interpellation

yielding the floor

Explanation

Decorum means maintaining proper behaviour. Interpellation means formal right of a Parliament to submit formal question to the government. Crossing the floor means to vote against the party lines. Yielding the floor means the speaker giving part of his or her speaking time to another speaker. While this practice is allowed in some legislative bodies, it is not allowed in deliberative assemblies, unless specifically authorized in the rules.

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Q 19. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
1. He is appointed by the President of India
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament
Which of these statements are correct?

1 and 2

B

1 and 3

C

2, 3 and 4

D

3 and 4

Explanation

Under Article 76, impeachment procedure of the Attorney-General is not provided. He shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.

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Q 20. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to:

distribution of revenue between the Centre and the States

B

prepare the Annual Budget

C

advise the President on financial matters

D

allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments

Explanation

According to Article 280 it shall be the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to (1) the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them under this Chapter and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds; (2) the principles which should govern the grants in aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India; (3) any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance; (4) The Commission shall determine their procedure and shall have such powers in the performance of their functions as Parliament may by law confer on them.

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Q 21. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every state to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?

A

Article 349

B

Article 350

Article 350-A

D

Article 351

Explanation

Article 350A was inserted by 7th Constitutional Amendment act 1956. It says, it shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups; and the President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities. Article 349 - Special Procedure for enactment of certain laws relating to language; Article 350 - Language to be used in representations for redress of grievances; Article 351 - Directive for development of the Hindi language.

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Q 22. Which one of the following duties is not performed by Comptroller and Auditor general of India?

A

To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India

B

To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts

C

To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts

To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer

Explanation

As per provisions under Article 149, the Comptroller and Auditor General shall perform such duties and exercise such powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the States and of any other authority or body as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, shall perform such duties and exercise such powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the States as were conferred on or exercisable by the Auditor General of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution in relation to the accounts of the Dominion of India and of the Provinces respectively.

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Q 23. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

A

It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states

B

It contains the languages listed in the Constitution

C

It contains the languages listed in the Constitution

It allocates seats in the Council of States

Explanation

Fourth schedule allocates seats in the Council of States i.e. Rajya Sabha.

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Q 24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I(Amendments to the Constitution)List-II
A. The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 19911. Establishment of state level Rent Tribunals
B. The Constitution (Seventy-fifth Amendment) Act. 19942. No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh
C. The Constitution (Eighteenth Amendment) Act, 20003. Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or at other local level
D. The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 20004. Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission
 5. According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi

Codes:

A-5, B-1, C-4, D-2

B

A-1, B-5, C-3, D-4

C

A-5, B-1, C-3, D-4

D

A-1, B-5, C-4, D-2

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Q 25. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended?

First

B

Second

C

Third

D

Fifth

Explanation

First schedule contains names of the States and UTs, that's why it should be amended, if a new state is created.