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Explore popular questions from Reasoning for IBPS. This collection covers Reasoning previous year IBPS questions hand picked by experienced teachers.

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Q 1. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ‘FLEXIBLE’ each of which have as many letters between them in the word (both in forward and backward direction) as they have between them in English Alphabetical Series?

A

None

B

1

C

2

3

E

More than 3

Explanation

Solution :

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Q 2. Read the following information carefully and answer the given question:
‘Pets are not allowed in the park premises' - A notice put up at the park entrance by the authority that is responsible for maintenance of the park.
Which of the following can be an assumption according to the given information? (An assumption is something that is supposed or taken for granted)

At least some people who visit the park have pets.

B

This is the only park which does not allow pets

C

People who ignored this notice were fined

D

There are more than one entrances to the park

E

Many people have now stopped visiting the park

Explanation

At least some people who visits the park have pets.

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Q 3. Landmark preservation laws unfairly impinge on the freedom of owners to develop their own property as they see fit. In some cases, owners of hotels and office buildings designated as landmarks have been forbidden to make changes in the original facades or interiors, even though they reasonably believe that the changes would enhance the structures and make them more valuable.

Which of the following statements, if true, seriously weakens the author’s argument?

A

Altering the appearance of a historic structure sometimes does not enhance its beauty or value.

B

In traditional legal doctrine, ownership of a property implies the right to alter it at will.

C

Only buildings over 75 years old are normally affected by landmark preservation laws.

D

Landmark designations must be approved by a local regulatory body before taking effect.

Historic buildings represent a cultural heritage which the community has a legitimate stake in preserving.

Explanation

The conclusion of the argument is that landmark preservation laws deprive landlords of their right to use their own property. (e) comes to grips with this assumption by nothing that a landmark building may not be purely private property and some part of building may belong to the community at large. (a) does not valid as it represents only a partial attack on argument.(b) strengthens the claims that landmark preservation laws represent an unwanted interference with the rights of the landlord.

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Q 4. All the members of the Student Rights Coalition signed the petition calling for a meeting with the university trustees. Philip must be a member of the Student Rights Coalition since his signature appears on the petition.

Which of the following best states the central flaw in the reasoning above?

A

Some members of the Student Rights Coalition may not support all of the organization’s positions.

B

It is possible that Philip’s signature on the petition was forged by a member of the Student Rights Coalition.

C

Any member of the student body is eligible to sign a petition dealing with university affairs.

D

Philip may have resigned from the Student Rights Coalition after signing the petition.

Some of those who signed the petition may not be members of the Student Rights Coalition.

Explanation

In the above question it is asked to choose from a given option which weaken the statement or make it imperfect so correct answer will be (e).

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Q 5. In which of the following expressions, ‘A < C’ and ‘T ≠U’ are definitely true ?

A

T < K > U < A = B ≥ C

T > K > U = A < B ≤ C

C

T = K < U > A > B ≤ C

D

T > K < U = A ≤ B C

E

None of these

Explanation

By using option (b) in the statement, we can see that’ A<C’ and ‘T≠U’ are definitely true.

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Q 6. In which of the following expressions `B <F' is definitely true?

A

A≤B≤C=D≤E=F≥G>H

B

A≤B>C=D<E<F≥G>H

A≤B< C=D≤F<G=H

D

All of these

E

None of these

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Q 7. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word INTERNET each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A

None

B

One

C

Two

Three

E

More than three

Explanation

The pairs are IN, NT TR. So three pairs.

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Q 8. The percentage of family income spent on entertainment has remained almost the same over the past twenty years – about twelve per cent. When new forms of entertainment become popular, they do not expand this percentage; instead, they take consumer spending away from other forms of entertainment. Therefore, film producers have observed the video boom with concern, knowing that every dollar spent on rental of videos means a dollar less spent on movie theatre admissions.

Which of the following, if true, most forcefully undermines the argument of the passage above?

A

The cost of renting a video is generally substantially less than the price of a movie theatre admission.

B

Most film producers receive a portion of the income from the sale of video rights to their movies.

C

Fears of some film producers that videos would completely supersede movies have not come to pass.

Since the start of the video boom, money spent on forms of entertainment other than videos and movies has dropped.

E

Some movies that were unprofitable when shown in theatres have become successful when released in video form.

Explanation

The author argues for the following connection: videos take money away from movies. What choices (d) asserts, in effect, is that the money spent on videos came from some other source.so,(d) statement undermines the given passage.

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Q 9. Some scientists believe that, in certain species of birds, actual particles of metal within the brain react to the Earth’s magnetic field in the same way as the needle in a compass. It is this mechanism that is thought to underlie the birds’ amazing ability to navigate accurately over distances of thousands of miles by day and night during migration. To test this theory, researchers surgically removed the metal particles from the heads of some birds and then released them, along with a number of untreated birds, at the usual time and place of their annual winter migration.

Which of the following results would most seriously weaken the theory being tested?

A

The untreated birds were confused by the erratic flight patterns of the surgically treated birds and failed to migrate successfully.

B

The surgically treated birds were able to follow their usual flight patterns successfully by day, but not by night.

The surgically treated birds were able to migrate about as accurately as the untreated birds.

D

The surgically treated birds were able to migrate successfully only when closely following a group of untreated birds.

E

In addition to being impaired in their migration ability, the surgically treated birds suffered a variety of other disabling effects.

Explanation

The question stem here asks for the evidence that would most weaken the theory that the metal particles are important to the bird’s navigational mechanism. The best refutation of the theory would be a finding that when the particles are removed, the birds continue to migrate as effectively as before.(c) is tantamount to saying that this was the case.

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Q 10. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the third, the fifth and the eight letters of the word SHAREHOLDING, which of the following will be the second letter of the word ? If no such word can be made, give 'X' as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give 'Y' as the answer.

A

L

B

E

C

S

D

X

Y

Explanation

SALE, SEAL

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Q 11. In a class of 90,where girls are twice that of boys, Rakesh ranked fourteenth from the top ,if there are 10 girls ahead of Rakesh. How many boys are after him in rank?

A

23

26

C

25

D

22

E

None of these

Explanation

No of boys = x; No of girls = 2x;
x+2x = 90 => 3x = 90
x (Boys)= 30 ; 2x(Girls) = 60
Number of student behind Rakesh = 90 – 14 = 76
No of girls behind Rakesh = 60 – 10 = 50
No of boys behind Rakesh = 76 – 50 = 26

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Q 12. Two cars start from the opposite places of a main road, 150 km apart. First car runs for 25 km and takes a right turn and then runs 15 km. It then turns left and then runs for another 25 km and then takes the direction back to reach the main road. In the meantime, due to minor break down the other car has run only 35 km along the main road. What would be the distance between two cars at this point?

65 km

B

75 km

C

80 km

D

85 km

E

None of these

Explanation

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Q 13. Q types faster than R but not as fast as V. T types faster than R. S types faster than V. Who amongst the five of them types the fastest?

A

V

B

T

C

S

Data Inadequate

E

None of these

Explanation

T>R
S>V>Q>R

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Q 14. If ‘B × C’ means ‘B is the daughter of C’, ‘B + C’ means ‘B is the husband of C and ‘B – C’ means ‘B is the sister of C’ then what does ‘M + N – P × Q’ mean?

A

M is the brother-in-law of Q

B

M is the uncle of Q

M is the son-in-law of Q

D

Q is the mother-in-law of M

E

None of these

Explanation

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Q 15. D said, “A’s father is the only brother of my sister’s son”. How is A’s father related to D?

A

Cousin

Nephew

C

Aunt

D

Data inadequate

E

None of these

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Q 16. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West become?

A

North-East

B

North-West

South-East

D

South-West

E

None of these

Explanation

It is clear from the diagrams that new name of West will become South-East.

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Q 17. Q moves towards south-east and travels a distance of 7 m, and then she moves towards west and travels a distance of 14m.From here, she moves towards North-west a distance of 7m and finally she moves a distance of 4m towards east and stood at that point. How far is the starting point from where she stood?

A

3m

B

4m

10m

D

11m

E

None of these

Explanation

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Q 18. If in a family of five members X is married to Y. L is brother-in-law of D. M is married daughter of Y and has one sibling. How is D related to X?

A

brother

B

sister

C

daughter

D

son

Can’t be determined

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Q 19. In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by some conclusions. Read the statements and then decide which of the following conclusions follow from the given statements.
Statements:
C ≤ N< P, K ≥ P, K > T
Conclusions:
I. N < T
II. K > C
III. P < T

A

Only I follows

Only II follows

C

Only III follows

D

Only I and III follow

E

None of these

Explanation

I. N < T (False)
II. K > C (True)
III. P < T (False)

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Q 20. In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by some conclusions. Read the statements and then decide which of the following conclusions follow from the given statements.
Statements:
D > P ≥ T, G > P > L, F = L ≥ S
Conclusions:
I. S > P
II. D > F
III. G > S

A

Only III follows

B

Only I and II follows

C

Only I follows

Only II and III follow

E

None of these

Explanation

I. S > P (False)
II. D > F (True)
III. G > S (True)

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Q 21. In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by some conclusions. Read the statements and then decide which of the following conclusions follow from the given statements.
Statements:
S = H ≤ A, B ≥ A < D, V > L = D
Conclusions:
I. B > H
II. V > A
III. S = B

A

Only I and Either II or III follows

B

Only III and Either I or II follows

Only II and Either I or III follows

D

All follow

E

None of these

Explanation

I. B > H (False)
II. V > A (True)
III. S = B (False)

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Q 22. In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by some conclusions. Read the statements and then decide which of the following conclusions follow from the given statements.
Statements:
L > V ≤ B, T < B < D, P > R = D
Conclusions:
I. R > V
II. L > T
III. P > T

A

Only I and II follows

B

Only II and III follows

Only I and III follows

D

All follow

E

None of these

Explanation

I. R > V (True)
II. L > T (False)
III. P > T (True)

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Q 23. If “GOAL” is coded as “2#75”, “FAULT” is coded as “37@59”, then “FUGATO” will be coded as?

A

3@297#

B

3#279@

C

3@729#

3@279#

E

None of these

Explanation

Two persons sit between the one who lives on 5th floor and S, who lives on 1st floor. V is an immediate neighbor of S. P sits to the immediate left of V. R faces inside and sits third to the right of U. W lives on floor number 2 and is not an immediate neighbor of U. We have following conditions-

Now, T does not face inside. This will eliminate Case 1 and Case 2. Q does not live on an odd numbered floor. The one who lives on 8th floor sits opposite to the one who lives on 7th floor.

Now, V does not live on an even numbered floor. R lives on one of the floor above U. The one who lives on 6th floor does not live on the immediate right of T. This will eliminate Case 4. So the final arrangement will be-

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Q 24. In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some Student are Job.
Some Job are Study.
Some Study are Vacant.
No Vacant is Student.
Conclusions:
I. All Job are Vacant is a possibility.
II. Some Study are Student.

A

If only conclusion I follows.

B

If only conclusion II follows.

C

If either conclusion I or II follows.

If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

E

If both conclusions I and II follow.

Explanation

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Q 25. In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
All Blue are Green.
Some Red are Green.
Conclusions:
I. Some Blue are Red.
II. Some Blue are not Red.

A

If only conclusion I follows.

B

If only conclusion II follows.

If either conclusion I or II follows.

D

If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

E

If both conclusions I and II follow.

Explanation